houses

[42]

My husband and I are separated and I will be pursuing a divorce soon.  He has moved out and I am in the house.  From the beginning of our marriage (12 years), we have lived in 3 houses -- I have bought every one with money from an inheritance from my parents.  He has never paid any mortgage whatsoever for 12 years on any house.  I am concerned that although my name is the only one on the deed and I have paid outright for the house with money from my inheritance (the first house was paid for with inheritance money; that money was then rolled over into the subsequent 2 houses), that since this money was essentially "co-mingled" in the house we both shared I will be forced to owe him some money on it in some way.  Also, I still have the second house, which has been for sale for almost a year.  Will he be entitled to anything from it's sale as well?

[Lee Borden]

Hard to say. The short answer is "it's possible."

For the benefit of those of you who haven't yet made this mistake but are thinking about doing it, know that this is all too familiar to divorce lawyers. When you spend inheritance money, you always make it more likely you will end up sharing that wealth with your spouse in a divorce. This is particularly true when you spend it, not as 42 did here for something permanent like a house, but for a nice trip or to pay off debt.